Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh 10 (Có đáp án)

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  1. ĐỀ 1 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 PART A: PHONETICS (3 points) I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point) 1. A. interest B. finish C. climate D. panic 2. A. heavy B. headache C. weather D. each 3. A. met B. effort C. chemistry D. explain 4. A. disabled B. retarded C. arrived D. learned 5: A. classes B. families C. arms D. fingers II. Choose the word which has the different stress pattern from those of other three words. Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point) 6. A. morning B. evening C. weather D. cartoon 7. A. development B. population C. photography D. activity 8. A. easy B. every C. effort D. enjoy 9. A. canteen B. physics C. teacher D. danger 10. A. education B. occupation C. geography D. information. III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence (1 point) 11. She has the habit of drinking after every meal. A. cup of tea . B. a cup of tea C. a tea cup D. a cup for tea 12. The . are those who do not have a job. A. injured B. sick . C. unemployed D. rich 13. A person who is more beautiful in photographs is said to be A. photography B. photograph C. photographic D. photogenic 14. A . is a film or a radio or television program giving facts about something. A. documentary B. comedy C. cartoon D. news 15. You can change the TV chanels with this control. A. far . B. remote C. standby D. special PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point) IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (3 point) 16. Some whales migrate into warm waters to bear their A. young B. diets C. calves D. young whales 17. Paul didn't in Canada. A. lived B. use to live C. used to live D. used to living 18. The port is capable handing 10 million tons of coal a year. A. in B. on C. of D. for
  2. 19. Being , the boy is unable to speak. A. deaf B. dumb C. illiterate D. disabled 20. The work was really . It took him nearly 13 hours! A. time-consuming B. long C. length D. extensive 21. No worries, I will you up at six. A. pick B. drive C. give a lift D. collect. 22. I tried to solve the problem the noise and interruptions. A. according to B. in spite of C. in case of D. because of. 23. Farming have been more and more improved. A. ways B. methodologies C. methods D. means. 24. . economic and technological development, our life has been improved. A. Because B. Thanks to C. Despite D. Although. 25. . is one of the most interesting subjects at school. A. Physic B. The Physic C. The Physics D. Physics 26. The are those who do not have a job. A. injured B. sick . C. unemployed D. rich 27. I have to get my picture for my Website. A. take B. taken C. taking D. took 28. You haven’t got luggage, have you? A. many B. few C. a few D. much 29. We should protect plants and animals of the sea to keep its A. resource B. energy C. existence D. biodiversity 30. What should we do to reduce the level of ? A. pollutes B. pollution C. pollute D. polluting V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences. (2 point) 31. The dog the cat before we could save it. A. has killed B. was killing C. had killed D. will kill 32 his lack of time, he watches football every Sunday. A. Although B. Because C. In spite of D. Because of 33. She can’t get home she has no money. A. if B. unless C. until D. without 34. “Do you know anything about birds?” “ Yes, when I was a child I bird books.” A. used to read B. was used to read C. used to reading D. use to read 35 If he harder, the results will be better. A. work. B. works C. has work D. will wor 36. Mary is interested in Vietnamese. A. to learn B. learn . C. learning D. leant 37. He’s always late for class, annoys the teacher. A. which B. that C. what D. who 38. Would you like with me to night? A. going out B. go out . C. to go out D. to be going out 39 Playing computer games for 12 hours every day him exhausted. A. make B. making . C. makes D. made 40. Since we came late we the first part of the film. A. missed B. caught C. forgot D. left VI. Give the correct form of the verbs . Write your answers in the numbered box (1 point) 41. He could get rid of his cough if he (not smoke) so much.
  3. 42. Do you mind ( travel) . every day? 43. So far, I .( meet) that famous singer twice. 44. John gets used to ( live) in noisy places. 45. Were he ten years younger, he (take) part in the voyage around the world. PART C : READING (5 points) VII. Read the following passage and then choose the best option for each numbered space: Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (2points) Someone once said that there are three kinds of people who are interested in sport: People who (46) part in, people who watch, and people who watch (47) television. It’s very easy to make fun of stay-at-home sports fans but on the other hand, television does enable us to enjoy all kinds of (48) events. We can watch a racing car (49) another, see a cyclist cross the finishing line, or enjoy the goals of our favorite football (50) The first time I watched a tennis match was on television, and I found it (51) interesting. It’s not always easy to (52) long distance to football grounds and television is a good solution. Of course, you can (53) used to sitting indoors all the time, and this is dangerous. We should all try to (54) fit, and have other interests and .(55) 46. A. take B. have C. make D. get 47. A. on B. with C. by D. from 48. A. the B. future C. sports D. athlete 49. A. cross B. overtake C. or D. from 50. A. group B. class C. band D. team 51. A. valuable B. imaginatively C. unexpectedly D. real 52. A. trip B. tour C. pass D. travel 53. A. or B. which C. get D. is 54. A. keep B. make C. do D. have 55. A. customs B. habits C. pastimes D. leisure VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks box. (1 points) Water, one of the two elements that are essential to life, covers 90 percent of the earth’s surface. However, despite appearances, water that is drinkable is rare on our planet. In the past, we have considered air and water to be free; but we cannot do so any more. Although we have oceans, seas, rivers, and glaciers, we need to protect our drinking supplies. As global warming increase, ice floes melt into the oceans. The deserts are increasing in size as they encroach upon and absorb arable land. Drought and scarcity of water are an increasing feature of our everyday lives. A good example of our problems is California. It has a reputation as a fertile state. Nevertheless, for years it has been short of water, and, since the 1980s, has been suffering from prolonged drought. Florida, too, has water problems and is trying to stop salt water from seeping into its underground reserves. Floods occur regularly but do not provide enough water to compensate for periods of drought. Both the bloods and the drought demonstrate that we lack control and that we are unable to manage this primary resource. 56. According to this article, what are the two “elements” that are essential to life? A. Water and milk B. Rice and water C. Water and air D. Fire and water
  4. 57. Which of the following words is a synonym of “free” in the first paragraph? A. Easy B. Without cost C. Everywhere D. Unattached 58. In the second paragraph, what is Florida? A. A river B. A glacier C. A village D. A state 59. Which of the following is NOT a synonym of “demonstrate” in the last sentence? A. Prove B. Show C. Give evidence of D. March 60. What does “it” in the first line of second paragraph refer to? A. California B. Drough C. Florida D. The problem of salinity IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (2 points) As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter. Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”. 61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage? A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers 62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a ___. A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse 63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as ___. A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter B. a good old man with less religious character C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas. D. a jolly man on horseback. 64. Who was Black Peter? A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas C. one of the disobedient children B. an elf who rode a white horse D. a popular traditional figure 65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”? A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance
  5. 66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from? A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York 67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ___. A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem. B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular. C. Saint Nicholas visited New York. D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed 68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem, A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one. B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly. C. Santa Claus liked poetry. D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh. 69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that___ A. the New York Sun was popular with children. B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time. C. newspapers are unreliable. D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun. 70. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures. B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas. C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America. D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter. PART D: WRITING (6 points) X. Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and then correct it. Write your answers in the numbered box. (1point) 71. I advised you(A) starting looking (B)for a (C)flat (D) at once 72. Mr Binh (A) taught maths (B) in this school (C) for 30 (D) years . 73. Joan’s party (A) had already started (B) in the time I (C) got (D) there 74. She (A) looks forward to (B) see her new (C)friend whom she only talked to(C)on the phone. 75. (A) The young (B)is very active and they can (C)continue our unfinished (D) work. Your answers: Mistake Correction 71. 72. 73. 74. 75 XI. Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words or phrases.( 2,4 points ) 76. Tan rides to Vinh Long for 2 hours. => It takes 77. 'What does Frank do for a living?' asked the man. => The man asked 78. 'Why don't we sing a few songs?'.He said. => He suggested
  6. 79. It’s three years since I started using this bicycle. => I have 80. The man is blind,Julia is talking to him => The man whom . 81. They want to buy a bigger house but they don’t have enough money. => If they 82. He left school and then he joined the army. => After he 83. People believe that he speaks six languages fluently. => He is 84. “ I’ll bring the book back at 7a.m,” said Philip. => Philip promised . 85. If the bus hadn’t been late ,I would have gone to school on time this morning. => Unless . 86. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag. => The old lady was 87. If you have completed your test, you can go home. => Get XII. Write a short paragraph (about 150 words) about advantages and disadvantages of playing computer games.(2,6 points) The end ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PHONETICS (3 points) I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. ( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys:
  7. 1 2 3 4 5 C D D B A II:Choose the word which has the different stress pattern from those of other three words. ( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence) .Answer keys: 6 7 8 9 10 D B D A C III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence. ( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys: 11 12 13 14 15 B C D A B PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point) IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. ( 3 points – 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys: 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C B C B A A B C B D C B D D B V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences. (2 points - 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys: 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C C A A B C A C C D VI. Give the correct form of the verbs.( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence). Answer keys: 41 42 43 44 45 did not smoke traveling have met living would take PART C : READING (5 points) VII. Read the following passage and then choose the best option for each numbered space.( 2points – 0,2 points/ sentence) Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (2points) Answer keys: 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 A A C A D C D C A D VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks box. (1 points– 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys: 56 57 58 59 60 C B D D A IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (2 points) 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. A
  8. 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. A PART D: WRITING (6 points) X. Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and then correct it. ( 1point – 0,2 points/ sentence) Answer keys: Mistake Correction 1. A- starting to start 2. A- taught has taught 3. B- in the by the 4. B- see seeing 5 B- is are XI. Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words or phrases.(2,4 points– 0,2 points/ sentence) 1. It takes Tan 2 hours to ride to Vinh Long. 2. The man asked what Frank did for a living. 3. He suggested singing a few songs. 4. I have used this bicycle for three years. 5. The man whom Julia is talking to,is blind. 6. If they had enough money, they would buy a bigger house. 7. After he had left school, he joined the army. 8. He is believed to speak six languages fluently. 9. Philip promised to bring the book back at 7a.m. 10. Unless the bus had been late, I would have gone to school on time this morning. 11. was robbed of her hand bag. 12. your test completed/ finished and you can go home. XI. Write a short paragraph (about 150 words) about advantages and disadvantages of playing computer games.(2,6 points) - Grammar : 0,65 points. - Vocabulary : 0,65 points. - Coherence : 0,65 points. - content / idea : 0,65 points The end ĐỀ 2 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 PART I. LISTENING Section 1: Listen and tick () the box (10 points). There is one example. 00. Which is Bill’s uncle? A B C 01. Which is Sally’s baby cousin?
  9. A B C 02. What’s Fred doing after school? A B C 03. What did Paul do in the holiday? A B C 04. Which clown did Anna see? A B C 05. Where’s Jim’s DVD games? A B C Section 2. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) BUSINESS NATIONWIDE Courses available: Name of Course: (00) Getting Started Time: Two hours from (6pm – 8pm) Cost: Free Course Content: Is starting a business right for me? Writing a (06)___ Some legal issues Nearest Location: Handbridge Next Course Date: 20th March Name of Course: Business Basics Length of course: (07)___ Cost: £80 or £20 for recently unemployed Course Content: Day One: Legal Issues Day Two: Marketing and Pricing Day Three: Accounting and (08) ___ Nearest Location: Renton Next Course Date: 5th March or (09)___ CALLER’S DETAILS Name: Lila Park Address: 39 White Lane, Eastleigh email: (10)___
  10. PART II. PHONETICS Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5 points) 11. A. address B. confusion C. device D. article 12. A. photogenic B. disabled C. exhibition D. volunteer 13. A. announce B. typical C. gradually D. attitude 14. A. understand B. concentrate C. chemical D. access 15. A. nation B. women C. allow D. college PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10 points) 16. When I was a child, I used to___ in that house. A. live B. to live C. living D. to living 17. I am having some days___ tomorrow. I will visit you. A. off B. of C. out D. in 18. It___ better if they would tell everybody in advance. A. is B. will be C. would be D. were 19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___. A. working machines B. useless machines C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machine 20. Do you know the man___ next to our teacher? A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand 21. Hoa and Quan quarreled___ each other sometime. A. in B. at C. with D. by 22. “Where do you live now?” – “I live in Hanoi; my___. A. parents too do B. parents do C. parents do, too D. parents also do. 23. A number of students___ volunteered to the job. A .having B. has C.to have D. have 24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___ learn spoken English better. A. so as B. so that C. in order that D. in order to 25. Amy, ___ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood. A. who B. whom C. whose D. that II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points) 26. I’m glad to know that you are going___ a picnic. 27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___ snow. 28. In this company, everybody is responsible___ turning off the lights before leaving. 29. The boy fell___ the water and was drowned. 30. He suffered___ constant sleepiness. 31. They have been absent___ school very often lately. 32. Is she capable___ using computers? 33. They have made use___ the house after remodeling it. 34. They stayed___ home because Andy wasn’t keen___ going out in the rain. 35. I wrote the letter to complain___ the good I bought in the shop. III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points) 36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___ research. 37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___. 38. He wants (WIDTH)___ his knowledge of the subject. 39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___ species. 40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___ device? 41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___ of animals in national parks. 42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___ of old and new. 43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___. 44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___ of living in a big city. 45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___. PART IV. READING I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10 points)
  11. SPRING When is the Spring season? Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)___ to the season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During Spring an important celebration (47)___: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and April 25 in Western (48)___, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity. What happens in spring? Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)___. The days grow longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)___. You can also contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___ of hibernation. What to do during the Spring Season? There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring: Plan a holiday and (52)___ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore! Take a walk in a (53)___ of flowers. Meditate: Contemplate and (54)___ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature. Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)___. 46. A. takes B. has C. means D. refers 47. A. takes part in B. takes note C. takes into D. takes place 48. A. hope B. interest C. tradition D. belief 49. A. recall B. reproduce C. repeat D. remove 50. A. hot B. scorching C. temperate D. cold 51. A. come into B. come after C. come before D. come out 52. A. make B. take C. have D. get 53. A. plot B. bunch C. field D. pack 54. A. reflect B. describe C. show D. draw 55. A. rebuilding B. rebirth C. reconstruction D. reminder II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points) These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated. The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees. These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate. 56. The subject of the paragraph before paragraph 1 was mostly likely___. A. the creation of the killer bee B. the chemical nature of killer bees attacks C. stories in the media about killer bees D. ways of producing honey 57. The word "inflated" in paragraph 1 means___. A. aired B. exaggerated C. blown D. burst
  12. 58. Why were African bees considered beneficial? A. They spent their time traveling. B. They were productive, even in inclement weather. C. They produced an unusual type of honey. D. They didn't work hard in inclement weather. 59. The word 'their' in paragraph 2 refers to___. A. the European bees' B. the African bees' C. the killer bees' D. the honey bees' 60. It is stated in the passage that killer bees___. A. are less aggressive than African bees B. never attacks animals C. are more deadly than African bees D. always attack African bees 61. The pronoun 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to___. A. humans and animals B. fatalities C. experts D. killer bees 62. Which is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees? A. Panic by the victims B. The odor of isoamyl acetate C. Disturbance of the bees D. Inclement weather 63. In which paragraph does the author describe the size of the groups in which killer bees move? A. Paragraph 3 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 2 and 3 D. Paragraph 1 64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of killer bees? A. attack humans and animals B. are aggressive by nature C. travel in large clusters D. are a combination of European honeybee and African bee 65. The main idea of this passage is that killer bee___. A. are not purebred B. have been moving unexpectedly C. have been in the news a lot recently D. are not as aggressive as their reputation suggests PART V. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 points) 66. Tom hasn’t watched a football match for 2 months. → The last___. 67. “You should apply for that job. It is suitable for you.” Kevin said to me. → Kevin___. 68. I didn’t have time so I was late. → If ___. 69. It is necessary to give the employee a full bonus. → ___. 70. What I saw in the football match surprised me . → I___. 71. His second attempt on the world record was successful. → He broke___. 72. They were all arrested because of his incompetence. → Had___. 73. Please don’t smoke in the kitchen. → I’d rather___. 74. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean”, said her mother. → Jean’s mother complimented ___. 75. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements. → Much___. II. The number of people using computers is increasing rapidly. What are the benefits of a computer? You should write a paragraph of about 250 words on this topic. (10 points)
  13. ___THE END___ ĐÁP ÁN PART I: LISTENING Section 1. (10pts) 01. A 02. B 03. A 04. B 05.C Section 2. (10pts) 06. Business plan 07. 3 days 08. book keeping 09. 18th April 10. lila.park@rainbow.com PART II. PHONETICS Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts) 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts) 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts) 26. on 27. with 28. for 29. into 30. from 31. from 32. of 33. of 34. at – on 35. about III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts) 36. scientific 37. permission 38. widen 39. endangered 40. miraculous 41. variety 42. combination 43. competition 44. disadvantages 45. poverty PART IV. READING I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10pts) 46. D 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts) 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D PART V. WRITING I. (10pts) 66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago. 67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job. 68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late. 69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus. (It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.) 70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match. 71. He broke the world record in his second attempt. 72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested. 73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen. 74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress. 75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements. II. (15 points) Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. ___THE END___ ĐỀ 3 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
  14. MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 A. LISTENING PART I. Listen to the dialogue on the phone between and a man and a girl named Juliet and fill in the form. You are allowed to listen TWICE. Give your answers in the numbered spaces. Name:Juliet A. Eastman Age: (01)___ Hair color: (02)___ Eye color: (03)___ Height: (04)___ Occupation: (05)___ Likes: going out and having fun, sports, (06)___ and (07)___ Wants to meet someone who : (08)___ likes same (09)___ and (10)___ Part II. You are going to hear an expert talk about sleeping and dreaming. Listen and write True (T) or False (F) for each sentence. You are allowed to listen TWICE. 11. Women sleep more than men. 12. A sound sleeper moves less than a light sleeper. 13. Most people need 9 hours of sleep a night. 14. Reading in bed helps you sleep. 15. Some people don’t dream at all. 16. The average person has about four dreams a night. 17. Not everyone can remember his or her dreams. 18. Eating before bed can give you nightmares. PART III. You are going to listen to a talk about Margaret Mead. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. You are allowed to listen TWICE. 19. What was Margaret Mead’s job? A. a photographer B. a biologist C. an anthropologist D. a journalist 20. What was Margaret Mead’s main interest? A. taking photographs B. exploring new places C. how children were looked after. D. living in pour areas. 21. When did Margaret Mead go to Samoa? A. in 1901. B. in the 1920s. C. in 1938. D. in 1978. 22. Who did she interview in her first trip to Samoa? A. girls between 9 and 20 years old. B. boys and girls between 9 and 20 years old. C. women over 20 years old. D. men and women over 20 years old. 23. What was the title of Margaret Mead’s book? A. The pacific Islands. B. Teenagers around the World. C. Growing Up in New Guinea. D. Coming of Age in Samoa. 24. What was the main reason why Margaret Mead took photos? A. She liked photography. B. Cameras were not very common at that time. C. Her husband liked photos. D. It was the best way to share what she learned. 25. What is the main topic of the listening passage? A. Margaret Mead went to college in New York. B. Margaret Mead did research on the role of culture. C. Margaret Mead took photographs and wrote books. D. Margaret Mead was born in Philadelphia B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences. 26. ___ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen. A. What the woman was B. That the woman was C. The woman was D. When was the woman 27. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “___.” A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please 28. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000___ gave them a standing ovation. A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences 29. My parents lent me the money. ___, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
  15. A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise 30. It is interesting to take___ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing. A. over B. on C. in D. up 31. Jack made me___ him next week. A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call 32. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” - “___.” A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck 33. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it___ warmer. A. was B. were C. has been D. had been 34. - “Eric is really upset about losing his job.” - “Well, ___ once myself, I can understand.” A. Having been fired B. Fired C. Having fired D. Being fired 35. ___ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move. A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been 36. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted___ good answer. A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for D. came up with 37. Not only___ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again. A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused 38. The judge___ the pedestrian for the accident. A. accused B. charged C. caught D. blamed 39. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was___ . A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work 40. We should participate in the movement___ to conserve the natural environment. A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized 41. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very___. A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded 42. There is___ in my bedroom. A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table 43. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. - “___.” A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not. 44. One’s fingerprints are___ other person. A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any D. different from those of any 45. He is very happy because he passed his exam with___ colours. A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing PART V. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction then correct it. Example: The teacher did not allow the students discussing the take-home exam with each other. discussing → to discuss 46. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity of radiation. 47. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling sounds. 48. In spite of its small size, Europe had a great impact on world history than other continents. 49. Before she moved here , Alene has been president of the organization for four years. 50. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her parents very happy. 51. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals. 52. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity. 53. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors. 54. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly appointments with our doctors. 55. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for a term paper.
  16. PART VI. Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable prepositions. 56. I'm afraid Tom's___ work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him? 57. Have you been to the theatre recently? ~ Yes, I was___ the Old Vie last night. 58. At first I found the work very tiring, but___ a few weeks I got used to it. 59. ___ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted. 60. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to him because we were standing ___ a queue. 61. He is always in a hurry. He drives___ a tremendous speed. 62. Write___ ink and put your name on the top of the page. 63. The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl___ blue. 64. He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets___ my nerves. 65. The children hastily changed___ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts of delight. PART VII. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage. The (66. SAY)___ “never judge a book by its cover” could not be more true for Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The cover is completely blank, whereas the book is crammed full of wonderful examples and anecdotes. Allen is an (67. SPEAK)___ critic of what is taught to native and non- native speakers of English, and has issued a (68. DECLARE)___ of war against textbooks and style books which tell lies. Take the ridiculous and (69. MEAN)___ rule of never ending a sentence with a preposition. The lovely - if famous – story goes, that Winston Churchill, well-known for his numerous (70. WRITE)___ as well as for being British Prime Minister during the Second World War, received a manuscript back from an ignorant (71. EDIT)___, who had told him rather rudely that he had to (72. PHRASE)___ a sentence which ended with a preposition. Churchill responded by making the simple yet forceful (73. STATE)___ in the margin: “This is an impertinence up with which I will not put.” – the (74. IMPLY)___ being that not to end a sentence with a preposition often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly, Allen informs us that the story is probably mere (75. HEAR)___, and that Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the margin. C. READING PART VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions. Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day. Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert- adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. 76. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
  17. C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals. 77. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals? A. It helps them hide from predators. C. It helps them see their young at night B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. D. It keeps them cool at night. 78. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to___. A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying 79. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of___. A. an animal with a low average temperature B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature 80. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking 81. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to___. A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce 82. What causes water intoxication? A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water. 83. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals? A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food. 84. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals. C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life. 85. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals? A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night PART IX. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (86)___ across words you do not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you (88)___. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (87)___ of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal. If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth remembering that every dictionary has its (89)___. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (90)___ of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (91)___ an English-English dictionary. In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (92)___ you are allowed to use one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (93)___, forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words. When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (94)___ a number of possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely. Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (95)___ from the formation of the word. 86. A. put B. drop C. see D. come 87. A. look B. guess C. examine D. inspect 88. A. extent B. range C. degree D. level 89. A. limitations B. values C. advantages D. entry 90. A. multiple B. variety C. variation D. diversity 91. A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire
  18. 92. A. or else B. Provided C. Although D. Even if 93. A. so B. therefore C. completely D. so that 94. A. surpass B. get over C. go over D. overcome 95. A. derived B. extracted C. coming D. originated D. WRITING PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. 96. This will be my student's first performance in Canada. → This will be the first time 97. This course will take us six months to complete. → In six-month-time 98. The number of people who understand his ideas exceed his expectations. → More people 99. She'll have to make her presentation at the end of his speech. → The moment he 100. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time. → Once 101. Both Mary and Peter prefer jazz to classical music. → Neither 102. They repaired my car at the garage in town. → I 103. This is the last time I will speak to you. → I 104. I prefer staying in to going out. → I'd rather 105. They passed the driving test because of the easy questions. → If PART XI. ESSAY WRITING Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 250 words, write an essay to assert your point of view on this problem. ___THE END___ ĐÁP ÁN LISTENING – 2,5 ĐIỂM PART I: 1,0 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng 01. twenty-three/23 02. blonde / blond 03. blue 04. average 05. computer programmer 06. music 07. (watching ) TV 08. outgoing 09. music/ sports 10. sports/ music PART II: 0,8 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng 11. F 12. F 13. F 14. T 15. F 16. T 17. T 18. F PART III: 0,7 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. B LEXICO – GRAMMAR – 3 ĐIỂM PART IV: 1 điểm = 0,05/ 1 câu đúng 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35.A 36. D 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. A PART V: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng 46. is used → used 47. their path → its path 48. great impact → greater impact 49. has been → had been
  19. 50. make → makes/made 51. composes not only → not only composes 52. rarely we stop → rarely do we stop 53. have difficulty → have had difficulty 54. do yearly → make yearly 55. such difficult → so difficult PART VI: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng 56. at 57. at 58. for 59. in 60. in 61. at 62. in 63. in 64. on 65. into PART VII: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng 66. saying 67. outspoken 68. declaration 69. meaningless 70. writings 71. editor 72. rephrase 73. statement 74. implication 75. hearsay READING – 2 ĐIỂM PART VIII: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng 76. B 77. B 78. C 79. C 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. D PART IX: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng 86. D 87. B 88. C 89. C 90. B 91. B 92. D 93. B 94. D 95. A WRITING – 2,5 ĐIỂM PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng) 96. This will be the first time my students have performed in Canada. (my student has given the performance in Canada.) 97. In six- month-time we will have completed this course. 98. More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects. 99. The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation. 100. Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time. 101. Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz. 102. I had my car repaired at the garage in town. 103. I will not/never speak to you (again). 104. I'd rather stay in than go out. 105. If -the questions hadn’t been easy, /- the questions had been (more) difficult,/- If it hadn’t been for the easy questions, they wouldn’t have passed the driving test/ they would have failed the driving test. PART XI. ESSAY WRITING (1,5 điểm) ___THE END___ ĐỀ 4 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D. 1. Our holiday was___ by the weather. A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted 2. The___ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high. A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum 3. He___ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned 4. The child was___ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street. A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down 5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time___ and visited all the important museums and buildings. A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring 6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must___ well in advance. A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy 7. His sister was full of___ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car. A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy 8. He asked if we would___ to share the room. A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
  20. 9. I wondered whether you would like to___ to the theater tomorrow. A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out 10. ___ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here. A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First 11. The independent arbitrator managed to___ the confrontation between the union and the employers. A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse 12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was___ that I would be attacked. A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified 13. His illness made him___ of concentration. A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless 14. Has the committee___ a decision yet? A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted 15. I am a bit hungry. I think___ something to eat. A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having 16. What do you plan to do when you___ your course at college? A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish 17. Where___? Which hairdresser did you go to? A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut 18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather___ with us’. A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came 19. I___ saying what I think. A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when 20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I___ just in time. A. could stop B. could have stopped C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and 1. ___ knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. 2. ___ The proficiency exams required by few states for high school 3. ___ graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and 4. ___ measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. 5. ___ For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether 6. ___ you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all 7. ___ mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because they 8. ___ assumption some sort of past learning or experience with certainly 9. ___ objects, words, or situations. The difference between achievement 10. ___ and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use. Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks. Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a (1.thunder) Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain) . So when Jack suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop) all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4. pleasant) to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall. The museum was quite (5.desert) and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain (6. beat) .against the windows. Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb) at the (8. enter) a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead) in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did not pay the (10.slight) . attention.
  21. Section B: Reading Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Fill each numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below. The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1) about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2) the world, but they are most common in warm seas. Sharks (3) .greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4) .much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5) only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean, but (6) are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others (7) far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8) water. All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9) fish, including other sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh. They also (10) on dead or dying animals. 1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange 2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over 3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary 4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly 5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand 6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks 7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate 8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear 9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive 10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks. Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been (1) A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2) to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3) from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4) vitamin C which is necessary for good (5) Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to different (6) For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri- beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7) A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8) that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9) vitamins. Today, vitamins are (10) in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy. Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C or D. Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy. Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of
  22. technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The number of nonnative users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology. 2. English began to be used beyond England approximately A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600 3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries. D. colonization 4. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English. B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English. C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising. D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English. 5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today? A. A quarter million B. Half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million. Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use: BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide business. At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time. (1)___. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand years ago. The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)___. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans. The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)___. This is from the world in the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)___. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate. (5)___. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)___. The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (7)___. At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)___. It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four bars each week. (9)___. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
  23. At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)___. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your next chocolate bars. A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans. B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate. C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl. D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water. E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate. F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands. G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden elsewhere. H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business. I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers. J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors. K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs. Section C: Writing Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one. 1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said She reminded him 2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car. The man 3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill. At the foot 4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club . Were you 5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him. It is 6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself. He 7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer. He doesn’t 8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success . Timmy’s success has turned 9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time. It's a long time 10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too. Not only Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the word in capital letters which must not be altered in any way : 1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration) → . 2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call) → . 3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved) → . 4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood) → . 5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt) → .
  24. Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic: How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer. ĐÁP ÁN Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm) Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm) Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A C A D A A B A C D Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D D C B A A D D B C Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm) 1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational 2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as 3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume 4. and → to 9. certainly → certain 5. but → to 10. intention → intended Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm) 1. thunderstorm 2. raincoat 3. shopping 4. pleasure 5. deserted 6. beating 7. disturbance 8. entrance 9. led 10. slightest Section B: Reading (35 điểm) Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm) 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm) 1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health 6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm) 1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H Section C: Writing (25 điểm) Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm) 1. She reminded him to phone the police. 2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car 3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church 4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club. 5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him. 6. He can’t have done it by himself. 7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer. 8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person. 9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time. 10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly. Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm) 1. You should take the price into consi 2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars 3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years. 4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood is small of the PM calling an /that the PM will call a . 5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted Part III (10 điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:
  25. - Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử của con người, cả về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực - Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn - Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý) - Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ ) thì không trừ điểm - ĐỀ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 Part A: LISTENING. (2 points) Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer. Women hold up half the sky. This is an old (1) However, research shows that perhaps women do more their share of “holding up the sky”. Fifty percent of the (2) are women, but in nearly two-thirds of all working hours are done by women. They do most of the domestic work like cooking, and washing clothes. Millions also work outside the home. Women hold (3) . of the world’s job. For this work, they earn only 40 to 60 percent as much as men, and of course they earn nothing for their (4) . In developing countries, where (5) of the world’s population live, women produce more than half of the food. In Africa, 80 percent of all (6) work is done by women. In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4.45 am she gets up, washes, and eats. It takes her half an hour to walk to (7) , and she works there until 3.00 o’clock pm. She collects (8) . until 4.00 pm then comes back home. She spends the next hour and half (9) to cook. Then she (10) for another hour. From 6.30 to 8.30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes. She goes to bed at 9.30 pm. Part B: PHONETICS (1p) I: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. 1. A. challenge B. change C. children D. chemical 2. A. general B. extremely C. together D. death 3. A. formed B. controlled C. convinced D. returned II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 4. A. campfire B. persuade C. instead D. suppose 5. A. tropical B. orphanage C. temperate D. abandon Part C. Vocabulary I. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p) Football is one of the world’s most (1) sports. People have played the game for hundred of years ago and almost every country has a national football (2) A football match consists of two teams with eleven players on each side. Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the game. When the refree blows his (3) , the game begins. The team that scored the most goals by the end of the match is the (4) . . If no team has scored a goal, the match is called a draw. The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the goalposts and tries to stop people (5) goals. He is only the player who can touch the ball with his hands. The ball is not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch. If it does, the game stops for a short time. II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p) 1. National teams must compete in games in their regions before being able to play in the finals. A. elimination B. tournament C. champion D. continent 2. Many fruit trees, like the banana, the mango, the coconut grow very well in climate A. polar B. snowy C. icy D. sub-tropical 3. A television show is a program in which competition try to answers questions to test their knowledge. A. cartoon B. culture C. quiz D. drama 4. The of the jealous husband was played by Paul Newsman
  26. A. part B. paper C. acting D. interpretation 5. The football team won because they had been so well trained by their A. teacher B. coach C. director D. instructor. Part D: GRAMMAR I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps) 1. “Why did you buy so much paint?” “I .the doors and windows again.” A. will paint B. am being painted C. am going to paint D. will be painting 2. The explorer .his lunch when the cannibals suddenly came. A. was eaten B. was eating C. has eaten D. has eaten 3. This morning I bought___book.___book is about butterflies. A. a/a B. a/an C. the/a D. a/the 4. I you if you had told me about your problem. A. will have helped B. would help C. would have helped D. would be helping 5. My father is working hard___money for our new house. A. saving B. for to save C. to saving D. to save 6. Before taking another degree in mathematics, Marie Curie a physics degree. A. had earned B. earned C. was earning D. has earned 7. “Did you remember to book the seats?” “Oh, no, I forgot. I for them now. A. telephone B. am telling C. am going to telephone D. will telephone 8. When I was young, everyone in the family gather together at home for Christmas. A. would B. used to C. was used D. use II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1p) 1. Most of the .in the area was caused by the factories. A. contaminate B. contamination C. contaminated D. uncontaminated 2. A computer can do complicated calculations with lightning speed and A. accurate B. inaccurate C. accuracy D. accurately 3. What should we do to reduce the level of . ? A. pollutes B. polluting C. pollution D. pollute 4. “ I failed my driving test again!” – “ ” A. I’m sorry to hear that. B. Don’t mention it C. It’s my pleasure D. Congratulation! 5. The salary of a doctor is much higher A. than that of a school teacher B. as that of a school teacher C. than a school teacher D. than of a school teacher III. Which sentence expresses the same idea as the given one.(1,4ps) 1. “ You shouldn’t get up until you feel better,” the doctor said to me A The doctor suggested getting up until I felt better. B The doctor ordered me to get up until I felt better. C The doctor advised me not to get up until I feel better. D The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better. 2. I rang the door bell, But nobody answer. A Although we rang the doorbell, there was no sound B Although we rang the doorbell, nobody answered C The doorbell rang, but nobody appeared D Nobody was in, so the doorbell continued rang 3. We could not go out because the weather was so bad. A The weather was so bad, but we went out. B If the weather had been fine, we could have gone out. C If the weather was fine, we could go out. D Whatever weather we had, we could not go out. 4. People think that an apple a day is good for you. A It is thought that an apple a day is good for you.
  27. B It was thought that an apple a day is good for you. C They are thought that an apple a day is good for you. D They thought that an apple a day is good for you. 5. He cycles to work in order to get some exercise. A He cycles to work so that he can get some exercise. B He cycles to work in order that he can get some exercise. C He cycles to work to get some exercise. D All are correct 6. He got over his illness in three months. A It took to get over his illness in three months B It took three months to get over his illness C It took him three months to get over his illness D It took three months to get over his illness 7. The train driver’s strike made it hard for us to get to work A We were impossible to get to work because the train driver’s strike B We found it impossible to get to work because the train driver’s strike C We could not get to work because of the train driver’s strike D We could not get to work because of the train driver’s strike IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in brackets.(1p) 1. They were given to build the supermarket in spite of opposition from local residents. (permit) 2. Their living-room is .decorated. (attract) 3. Sperm whales are among the species, which should be protected by law. (danger) 4. The fans were disappointed with the team’s early .from the competition. (eliminate) 5. The Italians is said to be the most .people in Europe.(passion) Part E: READING I. Fill in each gap with one suitable word from the box.(2 ps) screen from rise warming it which unless covering suffer loss The (1) of the earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power stations. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it forms a kind of (2) .that keeps or rather allows the sunshine in but stop the earth’s heat (3) getting out. It works like a greenhouse: that is why we call (4) . . the Greenhouse Effect. Because of this effect, the earth is getting warmer all the time. This (5) . in temperature will cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will rise, the ice (6) .the poles will melt and cause the sea level to rise. The second problem is the (7) of the ozone layer. Certain chemicals float up to the sky and react with the zone layer, and they make holes in it. Because of these holes the ultraviolet rays can. Shine directly to the earth. Many people are now starting to (8) from skin cancer. The sulfurous smoke from factories and power station mixes with rain clouds and gets blown by. The wind and then falls as acid rain (9) .destroys lakes and forests. These three problems threaten our environment at the end of the twentieth century. (10) . we do something about them quickly, we, human race, may disappear from the face of the earth. II. Read the passage and answer the questions There are many sources of pollution in our modern world. At present, the most serious sources are acid rain, car exhaust fumes and oil spills. Factory chimneys give out smoke that contains sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide. These gases combine with the moisture in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid with nitric acid. When it rains, these acids dissolve in the rain and make it acidic. Acid rain is believed to be the worst pollution problem of all. It has harmed aquatic life by turning many lakes into lifeless bodies of water. In these areas, there is no limestone in the rock to neutralize the acid rain naturally. One remedy is to pump limestone into the acidic lakes. However, it is not possible to do this on a large enough scale to save all the lakes. Car exhaust fumes contain carbon monoxide and lead which are highly poisonous. In big cities, exhaust fumes build up and pose a heath hazard to human beings.
  28. Pollution of the sea by soil threatens marine life. Much of the oil comes from ships that clean their fuel tanks while at area. Offshore oil wells also discharge vast amounts of oil into the sea. Pollution of the sea can also be caused by oil spills. An oil spill may occur as a result of accidents involving oil tankers. 1. What are the most serious sources of pollution? 2. Why is smoke from factory chimneys harmful to our environment? 3. What does “this” in (However, it is not possible to do ) mean? 4. what do car exhaust fumes contain? 5. What sources cause pollution of the sea? III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(2 ps) Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest subsistence strategy, and has been practiced for at least two million years. It was , indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gathers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments such as deserts forest or arctic wasteland. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater independence on hunting, and along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gathers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gathers in both Africa and Alaska that society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice a seasonal migration on pattern evolving for most hunter gathers, along with a restrict division of labor between sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period. 1. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. The Paleolithic period B. Subsistence farming C. Hunter-gatherers D. Marginal environment 2. Which is the oldest subsistence strategy? A. Migrating B. Domesticating animals C. Farming D. Hunting and gathering 3. The Word “rudimentary” is closet in meaning to . . A. Rough B. preliminary C. ancient D. backward 4. The phrase “in short” can be replaced by . A. In demand B. in want C. shortly D. to cut a long story short 5. The word “abundance” is closet in meaning to . A. plenty B. amount C. density D. majority 6. The word “mobile” in the passage can be replaced by . A. transportable B. carried C. movable D. portable 7. When was hunting and gathering introduced? A. 1,000,000 years ago B. 2,000,000 years ago C. 10,000 years ago D. 2,000 years ago 8. What conditions exits in the lower latitude? A. Greater dependence on hunting B. More coast and waterways for fishing C. A shorter growing season D. A large variety of plant life 9. How can we know more about the hunter-gathers of prehistoric time? A. By studying the remains of their camp sites B. By studying similar contemporary societies C. By studying the prehistoric environment D. By practicing hunting and gathering 10. Which of the following is not mentioned in the above passage? A. More and more people in the modern time live on the food they gather in the natural environment around their homes. B. The more vegetable in the lower latitude in the tropics there is, the greater opportunity for gathering
  29. plants there are C. Because of the shorter growing season in higher latitude, the availability of plants is limited. D. The environmental differences result in restricted diet. Part F: WRITING I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the space provided.(1p) 1. I have always wanted to visit Paris, that is the capital of France. A B C D 2. If Betty would driven more carefully, she would not have had that accident A B C D 3. His family was happy when they heard of him winning the race A B C D 4. I’m sure Amy will lend you the money, I’d be very surprised if she will refuse. A B C D 5. That shirt you saw in the window almost cost twenty dollars. A B C D II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (1p) 1. It was such bad news that Helen burst into tears The news . 2. There are more people out of work in this city than ever before. Never . 3. Although Judy was severely disabled, she participated in many sports. Despite her . 4. Thank you for reminding me about this meeting - otherwise I would have missed it. If you 5. Jenny’s salary as an accountant is two thousand dollars a month. Jenny makes III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.(1p) 1. Is it all right if you take care of the children? (mind) Do .? 2. It is reported that a train has crashed in Berlin. (have) A train . 3. Laura’s father did not allow her to see Jake. (prevented) Laura’s father . . 4. If you run every day, your breathing improves quickly.(running) Daily . 5. Tina’s car stopped working on the way to Scotland. (down) Tina’s car . III. Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about a film you have seen.(2s) Outline of a film report -Title of the film -General introduction: + Where did you see the film? Where? Who with? Why did you choose that film particular film? What type of film is it? + Where the film was set? What is it about? Who are the main characters and what happens to them? -Conclusion: Does the film have a happy or sad ending? Your feeling or impression about the film. - ĐÁP ÁN Part A: LISTENING. (2 points) Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer. 1. Chinese saying 6. agricultural
  30. 2. world’s population 7. the fields 3. forty percent 8. firewood 4. domestic work 9. preparing food 5. three-fourths 10. collects water Part B: PHONETICS (1p) I: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. 1. D. chemical 2. B. extremely 3. C. convinced II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 4. A. campfire 5. D. abandon Part C. Vocabulary I. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p) 1. popular 2. team 3. whistle 4. winner 5. scoring II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p) 1. B. tournament 2. D. sub-tropical 3. C. quiz 4. A. part 5. B. coach Part D: GRAMMAR I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps) 1. C. am going to paint 2. B. was eating 3. D. a/the 4. C. would have helped 5. D. to save 6. A. had earned 7. D. will telephone 8. B. used to II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1p) 1. B. contamination 2. C. accuracy 3. C. pollution 4. A. I’m sorry to hear that. 5. A. than that of a school teacher III. Which sentence expresses the same idea as the given one.(1,4ps) 1. D The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better. 2. B Although we rang the doorbell, nobody answered 3. B If the weather had been fine, we could have gone out. 4. A It is thought that an apple a day is good for you. 5. D All are correct 6. C It took him three months to get over his illness
  31. 7. C We could not get to work because of the train driver’s strike IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in brackets.(1p) 1. permission 2. attractively 3. endangered 4. elimination 5. passionate Part E: READING I. Fill in each gap with one suitable word from the box.(2 ps) 1. warming 6. covering 2. screen 7. loss 3. from 8 suffer 4. it 9. which 5. rise 10. unless II. Read the passage and answer the questions 1. They are acid rain, car exhaust fumes and oil spills 2. (It is harmful to our environment) because the smoke contains sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide. These gases combine with the moisture in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid with nitric acid. 3. “This” means to pump limestone into the acidic lakes. 4. They contain carbon monoxide and lead. 5. They are oil from ships which clean their fuel tanks while at sea, offshore oil wells, and oil spills. III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(2 ps) 1. C. Hunter-gatherers 6. C. movable 2. D. Hunting and gathering 7. B. 2,000,000 years ago 3. B. preliminary 8 D. A large variety of plant life 4. D. to cut a long story short 9. A. By studying the remains of their camp sites 5. A. plenty 10. A. More and more people in the modern time live on the food they gather in the natural environment around their homes. Part F: WRITING I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the space provided.(1p) 1. B -> which 2. B -> had driven 3. C -> his 4. D -> refuses 5. C -> cost most II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (1p) 1. The new was so bad that Helen burst into tears. 2. Never have there been more people out of work in this city. 3. Despite her severe disability/being severely disabled , Judy participated in many sports 4. If you had not reminded me about the meeting, I would have missed it. 5. Jenny makes two thousand dollars a month. III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.(1p) 1. Do you mind taking care of the children? 2. A train is reported to have crashed in Berlin 3. Laura’s father prevented him from seeing Jake 4. Daily running quickly improves your breathing
  32. 5. Tina’s car broke down on the way to Scotland IV. Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about a film you have seen.(2s) Outline of a film report -Title of the film -General introduction: + Where did you see the film? Where? Who with? Why did you choose that film particular film? What type of film is it? + Where the film was set? What is it about? Who are the main characters and what happens to them? -Conclusion: Does the film have a happy or sad ending? Your feeling or impression about the film. - Marking scheme The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 1p of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 0,6p of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 0,4p of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. \ ĐỀ 6 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10 SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS) I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts) 1. A. opponent B. compose C. podium D. advocate 2. A. reserve B. domestic C. optimistic D. nursery 3. A. both B. cloth C. ghost D. sold 4. A. examine B. determine C. famine D. dine 5. A. sacred B. decided C. contaminated D. watered II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts) 1. A. counterpart B. precede C. nursery D. compliment 2. A. bewilder B. audience C. benefit D. dedicate 3. A. pessimistic B. university C. epidemic D. particular 4. A. tsunami B. terrorist C. involvement D. disaster 5. A. processor B. windsurfing C. semester D. challenger SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS) I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts) 1. According to the boss, John is the most ___ for the position of executive secretary. A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable 2. The children went ___ with excitement. A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife 3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very ___ position. A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed 4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I ___ fish, please. A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe 5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and ___ when being asked about their future. A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing 6. There was a huge decline ___ the number of tigers. A. in B. for C. of D. out 7. I’d rather you ___ anything about the garden until the weather improves. A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make 8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to ___ my own interests. A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch 9. The new road currently under ___ will solve the traffic problems in the town. A. design B. progress C. construction D. work
  33. 10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “___.” A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts) 1. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) to Vietnam since yesterday. 2. Up to now, nothing (do) to solve their problem. 3. He suggested that his son (be) on time for the interview. 4. Tom will come home as soon as he (finish) his test. 5. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land. 6. In times of war, the Red Cross (dedicate) to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war. 7. Hardly our teacher (enter) the classroom when it started to rain. 8. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for you here. 9-10. Living in a fast-paced and mobile society (create) family stresses that (not imagine) by our great grandparents. III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts) 1. The main goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations are to promote peace and ___ in the region. (STABLE) 2. On my salary, we have to live as___ as possible. (ECONOMY) 3. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save___ species. (DANGER) 4. The security of the earth can be threatened by___ groups. (TERROR) 5. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and (DESTROY) habitat___. 6. He resigned for a ___ variety___ of reasons. (VARIOUS) 7. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night was___. (DEFEND) 8. Her son is always mischievous and___, which annoys her very much. (OBEY) 9. The Americans are much more concerned than the Indians and the Chinese with physical___ when choosing a wife or a husband. (ATTRACT) 10. You can never be sure what my sister is going to do. She is so___. (PREDICT) IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts) 1. Although to some people reading is a favourite way to spend time, but others just do not like reading. A B C D 2. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced disease can have severely effects on that species. A B C D 3. I believe that only very self-confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of eye contact time. A B C D 4. It is likely that all people in Hanoi live in skyscrapers by 2050. A B C D 5. In 1961, America’s first manned spacecraft launched. A B C D 6. Do you really think that candidate is qualify to be President? A B C D 7. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active. A B C D 8. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure. A B C D 9. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was a three-hours journey. A B C D 10. Married women are twice so likely as married men to be depressed. A B C D SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS) I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
  34. Kim Jong-il (16th February 1941 – 17th December 2011) was the supreme leader of North Korea (1)___1994 to 2011. Kim Jong-il died (2)___a suspected heart (3)___on 17th December 2011 while traveling by train to an area outside Pyongyang. He was succeeded by his youngest son Kim Jong-un, (4)___was considered by the Korean Central News Agency (5)___ the "Great Successor". The Korean Central News Agency reported that during his death, a fierce snowstorm paused and the sky glowed red above the sacred Mount Paektu. The ice on a famous lake also cracked so loud, it seemed to shake the Heavens and the Earth. Kim Jong-il's funeral took (6)___on December 28th in Pyongyang, with a mourning period lasting until the (7)___ day. South Korea's military was immediately put on alert after the announcement. Asian stock markets fell soon after the announcement, due to similar concerns. (8)___ January 12th, 2012 North Korea called Kim Jong-il the "eternal leader" and announced that his (9)___ will be preserved and displayed at Pyongyang's Kumsusan Memorial Palace. Officials will also install statues, portraits, and "towers to his immortality" across the country. His (10)___of February 16th has been declared "the greatest auspicious holiday of the nation", and has been named the Day of the Shining Star. II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (15pts) Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ___ to be successful? Having someone around who always (2) ___ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ___ – we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, ‘It looks (4) ___ rain.’ But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) ___ it. You can change your view of life, (6) ___ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you will find life more rewarding as a (7) ___. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) ___. Optimists are more (9) ___ to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks. Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ___ to the world. Some people are brought up to (11) ___ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) ___ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) ___ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ___ failure as the end of the world- they just (15) ___ with their lives. 1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited 2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts 3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun 4. A. so B. to C. for D. like 5. A. with B. against C. about D. over 6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following 7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product 8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose 9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome 10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position 11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope 12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns 13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far 14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think 15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts) In the second half of each year, many powerful storms are born in the tropical Atlantic and Caribbean seas. Of these, only about half a dozen become the strong, circling winds of 74 miles per hour or more that are called hurricanes, and several usually make their way to the coast. There they cause millions of dollars of damage, and bring death to large numbers of people. The great storms that hit the coast start as soft circling wind hundreds - even thousands - of miles out to sea. As they travel aimlessly over water warmed by the summer sun, they are carried westward by the southeast winds. When conditions are just right, warm moist air flows in at the bottom of such a wind, moves upward through it and comes out at the top. In the process, the moisture in this warm air produces rain, and with it, the heat is changed to energy in the form of strong winds. As the heat increases, the young hurricane begins to move counter clockwise motion. The life of a hurricane is only about nine days, but it contains almost more power than we can imagine. The energy in the heat released by a hurricane’s rainfall in a single day would satisfy the entire electrical needs of the United States for more than six months. Water, not wind, is the main source of
  35. death and destruction in a hurricane. A typical hurricane brings 6 to 12 inches downpour, causing sudden floods. Worst of all is the powerful movement of the sea – the mountains of water moving toward the hurricane center. The water level rises as much as 15 feet above normal as it moves toward shore. 1. When is an ordinary tropical storm called a hurricane? A. When it begins in the Atlantic and Caribbean seas. B. When its winds reach 74 miles per hour. C. When it is more than 74 miles wide. D. When it hits the Coastline. 2. What is the worst thing about hurricanes? A. The terrible effects of water. B. The heat they give off. C. That they last about nine days. D. Their strong winds. 3. Here the underlined word “downpour” means___. A. heavy rainfall B. dangerous waves C. the progress of water to the hurricane center D. the increasing heat 4. Which of the following statements about a hurricane is NOT true? A. It travels more than 75 miles per hour. B. It usually stays about nine days. C. It usually causes 6 to 12 inches downpour. D. It sometimes brings the sea water level to the height of 15 feet. 5. Hurricanes often cause ___? A. a lot of damage B. sudden floods C. death to large numbers of people D. All are correct SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS) I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts) 1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.  Only___. 2. House prices have risen sharply this year.  There has___. 3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.  Had it not___. 4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?  I’d___. 5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.  He broke___. 6. I write to him almost every day.  Hardly___. 7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.  All dogs are___. 8. Don’t go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.  Make sure you finish___. 9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.  The annual___. 10. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.  Henry wishes___. II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts) 1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON  The two theories ___. 2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT  I can’t/ won’t ___. 3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY  I have ___. 4. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. NEITHER  He has ___. 5. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO  A quiet ___. III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts) 1. Mother/ take/ responsibility/ run/ household. ___.
  36. 2. ASEAN / have/ population/ 575.5 million/ account/ 8.7 %/ the world’s population. ___. 3. It/ not/ until/ Einstein/ eight/ he/ can/ speak. ___. 4. Defensive players / not/ allow/ interfere/ opponent’s movements/ unless/ player/ hold/ ball. ___. 5. Never/ stop/ try/ you/ get/ right solution/ problem. ___. ___THE END___ ĐÁP ÁN SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS) 1 point/correct answer. I. 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D II. 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS) 1 point/correct answer. I. 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B II. 1. has been done 5. is dedicated 8. will be waiting 2. (should) be 6. is dedicated 9. has created 3. has finished 7. had our teacher entered 10. couldn’t have been imagined 4. was founded III. 1. stability 3. endangered 5. destruction 7. indefensible 9. attractiveness 2. economically 4. terrorist 6. variety 8. disobedient 10. unpredictable IV. 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS) 1 point/correct answer. I. 1. from 3. attack 5. as 7. next/ following 9. body 2. of 4. who 6. place 8. on 10. birthday II. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B III. 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS) I. 1 point/correct answer. 1. Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax. 2. There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year. 3. Had it not been for the attendance / presence/ appearance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success/ would have been a failure. 4. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in my house. 5. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt. Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/ when I 6. don’t write to him. 7. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves. 8. Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch. 9. The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in) the southeast. 10. Henry wishes (that) he hadn’t bought the second - hand car. II. 1 point/correct answer. 1. The two theories (appear to) have (got) nothing in common. 2. I can’t/ won’t put up with his rude behavior. 3. I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing. 4. He has neither money nor time to go on holiday. 5. A quiet holiday would do you good. III. 1 point/correct answer. 1. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.