Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện lớp 6 THCS môn Tiếng Anh

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện lớp 6 THCS môn Tiếng Anh

1. ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 6 THCS Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI THI A. CẤU TẠO ĐỀ THI: Đề thi gồm có 5 phần: SECTION 1. NGHE HIỂU (Listening) : 10 câu. SECTION 2. NGỮ ÂM (Phonetics) : 5 câu. SECTION 3. TỪ VỰNG VÀ NGỮ PHÁP (Lexico-grammar) : 30 câu. SECTION 4. ĐỌC HIỂU (Reading): : 25 câu. SECTION 5. VIẾT (Writing): : 10 câu - 5 câu (viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không đổi so với câu đã cho) - 5 câu ( viết câu hoàn chỉnh, có thể thay đổi từ, cấu trúc cho phù hợp) B. HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI: • Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm. • Đề thi gồm có 6 trang. Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài. • Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa màu trắng). Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại. • Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng. • Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển. SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points) Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5) Programme Name Channel Content Feelings fun and relaxing to Mi Kids’ Funs (1) ___ funny (2) ___ watch Tom (3) ___ Discovery a gigantic shark (4) ___ Mrs Mai Journey to Space 9 (5) ___ interesting
2. II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points) Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5) The teacher gives (1) ___ tips, (2) ___ tips, and (3) ___ tips. She tells students to use gas at home instead of (4) ___ wood. She also advises students to avoid (5) ___ that smoke. SECTION 2: PHONETICS III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points) 1. A. healthy B. instead C. seaside D. breakfast 2. A. nice B. uncle C. office D. distance 3. A. drops B. looks C. means D. meets Write your answers here: 1 2 3 IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points) 1. A. geography B. literature C. hospital D. bakery 2. A. finish B. address C. picture D. music Write your answers here: 1 2 SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points) 1. I usually play football when I have . A. spare time B. good time C. no time D. times 2. In team sports, the two teams ___ against each other in order to get the better score. A. are B. do C. make D. compete 3. draw on the walls and tables, please. A. Do B. Don’t C. Should D. Shouldn’t 4. Nam plays sports very often, so he looks very . A. sport B. sports C. sporty D. sporting 5. How many numbers between 5 and 100 are divisible by 5 A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21 6. People in Tokyo are very polite friendly. A. or B. and C. but D. so 7. Do you know drink in Viet Nam? A. popular B. more popular C. more and more popular D. the most popular
3. 8. The robot will of the flowers in the garden. A. take care B. take note C. be careful D.carry 9. I don't know how this lesson. A. learn B. learning C. to learning D. to learn 10. A: “Would you like some bread?” B: “___”. A. No, thanks. I’m full B. Ok. I don’t like rice C. All right D. Yes, I would 11. John: “___?” Mary: “That’s a great idea.” A. Do you like playing sports B. Can you buy me some apples C. Why don’t we go out for dinner D. May I borrow your pen 12. Ba: “___ do you visit your uncle?” Nam: “Every other week.” A. Why B. How often C. When D. How long 13. The school cafeteria only opens ___ lunchtime. A. on B. in C. at D. of 14. On ___ we often go out for dinner. A. nights of Saturday B. Saturday nights C. Saturday’s nights D. none is correct 15.There are many chairs in the kitchen, there is only one in my bedroom. A. so B. because C.but D.in 16. This is a/an car. A. American red old B. old red American C. red American old D. old American red 17. John: “Hello. Can I speak to Trang, please?” - Trang: “___” A. Speaking. Who’s that? B. What’s the matter with you? C. Hello, John. How are you? D. How do you do? 18. Listen! Someone___at the door. A. knocks B. knock C. is knocking D. are knocking 19. This sign says “Stop!” We go straight ahead. A. can B. don’t can C. must D. mustn’t 20. Do you ___ your new classmate, or do you two argue?” A. get on well with B. look forward to C. face up to D. keep up with 21. They often go to Ho Chi Minh City ___air. A. by B. in C. with D. on 22. The tree ___. A. is high one meter B. has one meter C. is one l ong meter D. is one meter high 23. He arrive ___ at six o’clock. A. home B. at home C. in home D. to home 24. there any furniture your new living room? A. Is - in B. Is - at C. Are - in D. Are – on 25. Children in the poor villages are allowed to go to school without ___ money. A. paying B. to pay C. pays D. to paying Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 . 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 . 23 24 25 .
4. VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points) 1. Our teacher is very beautiful. She has an oval face with a long black hair. A B C D 2. You must taking off your shoes before entering this room. A B C D 3. He gets up early so he’s never late of school. A B C D 4. A lot of my friends play soccer, but not much of them play tennis. A B C D 5. Sorry. You can't speak to Jim now. He's have a bath. A B C D Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 SECTION 4. READING VII. Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (2,5 points) Do you want to be fitter and healthier? Would you like to look younger? Do you want to feel (1) relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farms are becoming (2) ___ of the most popular places (3) ___a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s (4) ___ largest health farm in the country but it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise and massage I (5) ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy of (6) , but it was expensive too! If you’re looking for something a (7) cheaper, try a winter break. Winter is the darkest and the coldest (8) of the year, and it can also be the (9) ___ time for your body. We all eat too (10) ___ and we don't take enough exercise. A lot of health farms offer lower prices from Monday to Friday from November to March. 1. A. like B. more C. less D. Similar 2. A. once B. first C. one D. none 3. A. with B. of C. to D. for 4. A. the B. an C. a D. x 5. A. feel B. felt C. fell D. fall 6. A. all B. out C. course D. them 7. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few 8. A. period B. moment C. time D. part 9. A. worst B. good C. best D. great 10. A. many B. a lot C. lot of D. much Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
5. VIII. Read the following passage then choose A,B,C or D to answer the questions below. (10 pts) Every day on radio, on TV, and in the newspaper, we hear, see or read about many problems in the world, for example, pollution problems. Air pollution is the first kind. It mostly comes from fumes released from motorbikes, cars, airplanes, trains and poisonous gases emitted from factories. Also, waste is dumped anywhere, even in the city where many people are living. The second pollution problem is sea pollution. Many people earn their living from fishing in the sea, and the fish they catch feed many people. But the sea has become so polluted from oil spills and factory wastes that the fish are dying. This is not only killing the fish, but is also affecting those people who eat fish. Seldom do you find a place nowadays that is not polluted. This problem is growing more difficult every day. We must find a good solution that makes the world a better place to live. 23. We hear, see and read about problems in the world ___ A. once a week B. every day C. every week D. every year 24. What causes the air pollution? A. fumes from vehicles. B. poisonous gases from factories. C. waste from everywhere D. All are correct 25. The sea has become polluted because of ___ A. oil spills B. factories wastes C. smoke from factories D. A and B are correct 26. In order to make the world a better place to live, we ___ A. should not prevent pollution B. must find a good solution. C. should kill the fish. D. None is correct. 27. The word “This” in the passage refers to ___ A. pollution B. oil C. factory D. sea Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2,5 points) “Do you like sport?” You can hear this (1) very often. Many people answer “Yes, I do”, and (2) think about watching a game of football at a stadium, or (3) TV while sitting in a comfortable armchair. But watching sport events and going in for sport (4) ___ two different things. Let’s hope that you prefer the second. Sport holds (5) important place in our life. When you listen to the radio early in the morning, you can always (6) sports news. When you open a newspaper, you will always find (7) about some game or other or an article about your favorite kind of sport. Especially interesting stories are (8) famous men or women in the world of sport, how they became champions and about (9) plans for the futures. Television programmes about (10) are also very popular, and you can watch something interesting practically every day. Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 SECTION 5. WRITING
6. X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1. What is the weight of this suitcase? How ? 2. Your sister is the most hard- working in my class. Nobody 3. He spends one hour a day playing with his children. It . 4. Let’s have a picnic at Hung King Temple this weekend? Why don’t 5. Do you walk to school every day? Do you go XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points) 1. Mr.Nam / not have/ much time/ to write/ friends. 2. Hoa's sister/ listen/ music/room/ some/ of/ friends/ the moment. 3. Mrs. Hue/ children/ eating/ breakfast/ food stall/ near/ house. 4. Who/your brother/ play/ volleyball/ yard/ with/ now/? 5. Our apartment / have / five rooms /and/ it/ sixth floor/ the building. The end
7. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 6 THCS Môn: TIẾNG ANH SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. 17 2. games 3. Shark week 4.thrilling 5.stars and planet II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points) (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. household 2.garden 3. transportation 4. burning 5. engines SECTION 2: PHONETICS III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points) 1.C 2. B 3.C IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points) 1. A 2.B SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points). (25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points) 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. B 13.C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. A VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points) (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C
8. SECTION 4: READING. VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer. (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 1. question 2. they 3.on 4. are 5. an 6. hear 7. information 8. about 9. their 10. sport SECTION 5. WRITING X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1. How heavy is this suitcase? 2. Nobody in my class is as hard-working as your sister. Nobody in my class is more hard-working than your sister. 3. It takes him one hour a day to play with his children. 4. Why don’t we have a picnic at Hung King Temple this weekend. 5. Do you go to school on foot everyday? XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points) 1. Mr.Nam does not have much time to write to his friends. 2. Hoa's sister is listening to music in the room with some of her friends at the moment. 3. Mrs. Hue and her children are eating breakfast at the food stall near her/ their house. 4. Who is your brother playing volleyball in the yard with now? 5. Our apartment has five rooms and it is on the sixth floor of the building. Total mark = 20 points. ___The end___